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need help with this, thx
I know its easy if you assume f(x) to be n^x, since f(a+b)=f(a)f(b), then find n to be e, but is that enough? I mean it doesnt seem general
I could only get this far
Last edited by Dragonshade (2008-04-30 04:07:41)
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The only continuous homomorphisms from
to are of the form where k is a real constant.Offline
says that f is a homomorphism from the additive group of reals to the multiplicative group of positive reals. says that f is differentiable and hence continuous.The only continuous homomorphisms from
to are of the form where k is a real constant.
Ah so you can assume its e^kx ? no need to prove that?
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I think it is one of the so called cauchys functions, which does not need to be proven. Jane, can you state the exact theorems about how differentiation and continuity relates to another? didnt know for example that differentiable at a single point, could be extended to all points, i think i need to repeat this
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says that f is a homomorphism from the additive group of reals to the multiplicative group of positive reals. says that f is differentiable and hence continuous.The only continuous homomorphisms from
to are of the form where k is a real constant.
I believe this is assuming too much for what you are asked to prove. Not only that, but it's an algebraic proof of an analytic problem. Certainly this is not what the professor meant. Furthermore, f'(0) = 1 does not, by itself, say that f is differentiable. Certainly combined with the other facts it will end up saying that, but it does not follow from what you posted.
Go by definition. Start out with:
Use the properties that were given in the problem, you should get f(x) almost immediately.
Edit: There is a little "gotcha" in the problem. Perhaps it's just on my part, but I almost missed this. At the end of evaluating this limit, you will want to immediately conclude (without further reasoning) that:
Don't. Be very explicit about it.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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Ricky, is my proof under the same principle as your? it looks similar but I dont know if its legal, it goes like this
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No, it's not. You don't know that f is differentiable everywhere, so f'(x) might not actually exist.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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I think I could fix the f(h)/h thing
Last edited by Dragonshade (2008-04-30 09:13:54)
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That's it.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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