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reviewing some linear algebra.
Is it true that for an invertible nxn matrix A, that
that is, if A has an inverse, does the inverse works from either side? Don't tell me how to prove it, i just want to know if its true.
Last edited by mikau (2008-07-24 16:47:20)
A logarithm is just a misspelled algorithm.
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Yes.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_matrix
Wrap it in bacon
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If an element has a right inverse and a left inverse, then both left and right inverses must be equal. This is true in any semigroup with an identity element. (A semigroup is a nonempty set S together with a binary operation that is associative in S.)
Proof: If
, thenIt also follows that this inverse is unique.
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thanks jane, but didn't I tell you not to prove it?
fortunately, I got that much of the proof, but that assumes initially that, given ax = 1, there is some matrix y such that ya = 1 (has a left/right inverse implies has a right/left inverse). If we can show one exists, then we can show by the above proof that they must be equal.
I'm simply trying to prove that, if Ax = 1 implies xA = 1.
for one, I noted Ax = 1 implies (Ax)A = A(xA) = A, but I'm not sure if AM = A implies M = I, and so the problem reduced to trying to prove that.
A logarithm is just a misspelled algorithm.
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